Do you believe in purchasing power parity being a good enough conversion factor between value of a commodity in different currencies?
So PPP between βΉ-$ goes as follows:
Apparently 18.18βΉ can buy you similar level of luxury (woah! The heuristics that would have gone behind this) as 1$
What that means is 26LβΉ translate to 100k$ π€
I read on Quora that roughly 35LβΉ TC saves you the same as 100k$ TC. This seems off.
What have my fellow Blind-Indians (Blindians? π¬) got to say about this?
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